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Exam Code: HP0-Y28
Exam Name: HP (HP ProCurve ASE Mobility 2010 Delta Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You must troubleshoot a PCM+ installation at a customer site. Which issue could indicate a mismatch
between the SNMP read community configured on PCM+ and that configured on a device?
A. PCM+ cannot collect traffic statistics.
B. PCM+ cannot scan the device configuration.
C. PCM+ cannot discover the device.
D. PCM+ cannot change the device's configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What information is required to create license keys for PCM+ and its plug-ins? (Select two.)
A. Registration ID
B. PCM+ Update ID
C. Hardware ID
D. Serial Number for PCM+
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
The HP ProCurve 5406zl switch labeled as Managed device?has experienced a PCM+ Event that must
be sent as a trap. If PCM+ and the devices are configured correctly, which device will receive the trap?
A. PCM+ server
B. Remote Agent for Location 1
C. Remote Agent for Location 2
D. Intrusion Prevention System at Location 2
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Match each security technology with its description.
Answer:

NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
You have installed PCM+ and all of its plug-in applications on this network. You have not performed any
additional configuration. How many subnets will be displayed in the navigation tree when you log in to
PCM+ for the first time?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are installing PCM+, Network Immunity Manager (NIM), and Identity Driven Manager (IDM) for
evaluation at a customer site. When must a license be added to the PCM+ installation? (Select two.)
A. when the customer plans to use IDM immediately after installation
B. when the customer plans to use PCM+ to manage wireless and wired devices
C. when the customer plans to use PCM+ to manage more than 350 devices
D. when the customer plans to continue using PCM+ after the 60-day trial period
E. when the customer plans to use NIM immediately after installation
Answer: CD

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
What must you do to enable the AP named "Confidential" to function properly in this mobility solution?
A. Enable the radio.
B. Configure a management IP address.
C. Synchronize the configuration.
D. Upgrade the firmware.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are assisting a customer who needs to purchase licenses to use Network Immunity Manager (NIM)
after the NIM trial period has expired. How many NIM licenses does the customer require?
A. one for each PCM+ device license
B. one for each wireless device that supports NIM
C. one for each ProCurve switch that supports Virus Throttling
D. one for each switch or access point
Answer: A

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
You have installed PCM+ and all of its plug-in applications on the network shown in the exhibit. You have
not performed any additional configuration. Which device(s) will be included in the network map when you
log in to PCM+ for the first time?
A. switch B only
B. switch C only
C. switch D only
D. server A and switch B
E. switches B, C, and D
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which PCM+ feature enables Network Immunity Manager (NIM) to detect the anomalous or
threatening behavior of a client on the network?
A. Identity Manager
B. Policy Management
C. Agent Manager
D. Traffic Monitoring
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-E28
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Virtualization Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Power failures within the data center are best addressed by what type of solution?
A. network security
B. data consolidation
C. business continuity
D. software as a service
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your analysis of a customer environment is that their IT departments prefer to dedicate one server per
application, regardless of application type. Which business problem does this opportunity present?
A. consolidation
B. network storage
C. business continuity
D. mainframe migration
Answer: A

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NO.3 How would you best describe virtualization to a CEO focused on business issues?
A. It is an amalgamation of multiple network storage devices into a single unit.
B. The layering of applications allows computing resources to be distributed dynamically in real time.
C. It is the partitioning of a physical server into smaller virtual servers in support of business and IT
objectives.
D. It is an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply
automatically meets demand.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Blade servers currently represent about what percentage of industry-wide x86 server revenue?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 35%
D. 45%
Answer: B

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NO.5 HP Adaptive Infrastructure is a component in what major HP strategy?
A. Infrastructure virtualization
B. Business Technology portfolio
C. Business Services Management
D. Business Information Optimization
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are the key features of the HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)? (Select two.)
A. synchronous remote replication
B. storage pooling across heterogeneous arrays
C. active/active failover on the Data Path Modules (DPM)
D. elimination o downtime to perform data migrations across arrays
E. the ability to import and export LUNs from the native array into SVSP
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Greater than fifty percent of thin clients shipped by HP are deployed in support of which vendor's virtual
machine software solutions?
A. Citrix
B. RedHat
C. Microsoft
D. VMWare
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the fastest growing storage connectivity technology?
A. DAS
B. iSCSI
C. ESCON
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E32
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP SMB Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which type of sales process typically focuses on pricing and delivery?
A. solution sale
B. lifecycle sale
C. consultative sale
D. transactional sale
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer has a limited IT budget and is interested only in cost savings. Of which HP product or
service should you advise this customer to consider?
A. simplified setup features
B. the cost savings of a newBladeSystem deployment
C. the longer lifecycle of HP systems for a better ROI for their investment
D. the high availability features of HP Integrity products
Answer: C

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NO.3 During stage 2 of the sales cycle, Validate the Opportunity, what should be done?
A. discover customer business challenges
B. create a reference story
C. prepare the terms and conditions of the proposal
D. confirm the customer's budget and commitment
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer who has a group of employees performing similar Microsoft Office application tasks wants to
reduce their total cost of ownership (TCO). Which HP solution should you recommend to this customer?
A. desktops
B. notebooks
C. thin clients
D. workstations
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which services elements are targeted for commercial or SMB customers?
A. Critical Services
B. SupportPlus Services
C. Proactive 24 Services
D. Care Pack Services
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is true about a consultative sale?
A. The customer has a predefined product and solution they want.
B. The sales process is based on adding value.
C. The sales process focuses on the fastest shipment and arrival date of product.
D. The sales process focuses on commodity elements of the lowest price.
Answer: A

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NO.7 After speaking with a customer, you determine their desktop requirements include a highly stable device
with built-in manageability features. Their greatest concern, however, is security. Which HP solution is
best for this customer?
A. Essential Business PC Series
B. Advanced Business PC Series
C. Elite Business PC Series
D. All-in-One Business PC Series
Answer: C

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NO.8 A biometric fingerprint sensor is an example of which type of feature?
A. security
B. reliability
C. performance
D. ease of use
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-Q03
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Integrity Server Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which HP Utility Pricing Solution is appropriate for customers who want to pay for IT assets based upon
actual usage and do less capacity planning?
A. Sale lease-back
B. Metered capacity
C. Managed capacity
D. Short-term finance
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which Integrity servers benefit from the higher performance and greater availability of the HP sx2000
chipset? (Select two.)
A. HP Integrity rx2660
B. HP Integrity rx6600
C. HP Integrity rx8640
D. HP Integrity rx3600
E. HP Integrity Superdome
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the roadmap for the HP Integrity server family?
A. It is tied closely to the roadmap for PA-RISC processors.
B. It is tied closely to the roadmap for the Intel Itanium processor.
C. It is tied to projected increases in power and cooling availability.
D. It is tied to the trend towards higher bandwidth single-core processors.
Answer: B

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NO.4 How many processor cores are the maximum supported in the high-end HP Integrity Superdome
servers?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which is a benefit to HP Integrity server customers?
A. an increase in cable management complexity
B. energy efficiency, with up to 10% improvement
C. the highest level of availability for every application
D. simplicity and efficiency that results in lower TCO
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which messaging statement describes what HP Integrity servers deliver?
A. HP Integrity servers simply deliver more computing power.
B. HP Integrity servers always deliver availability, scalability, and virtualization.
C. HP Integrity servers deliver predictable, standards-based IT staff resources.
D. HP Integrity servers deliver maximum power using maximum resources.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement is true of today's IT infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. Underutilized server capacity is no longer an issue.
B. Cost of operations is now the lowest portion of the IT budget.
C. The IT environment has become complex and difficult to maintain.
D. Energy needs for power and cooling are no longer concerns of the CIO.
E. There is a struggle to meet service level agreements for critical workloads.
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 Which HP Integrity servers use the zx2 chipset and provide double chip spare memory? (Select two.)
A. rx2660
B. rx3600
C. rx7640
D. rx6600
E. rx8640
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: HP3-023
Exam Name: HP (HP Color Laserjet 2820-2840 Aio Datasheet)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What program allows customers to annotate documents with text and graphics?
A. HP Director
B. HP Document Viewer
C. HP Image Zone
D. Readiris Pro
Answer: B

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NO.2 Why would a fax Receive-to-PC mode option be unavailable on an HP Color LaserJet 2840 AiO?
A. The product is installed as a network device.
B. The product was installed hardware first, instead of software first.
C. Newer HP all-in-one products do not have this option.
D. When installing the software, select the Custom Install option.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What should display on the control panel before entering the menu to print a secondary service report?
A. Enter
B. Print
C. Service reports
D. Ready
Answer: D

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NO.4 What page contains four columns of horizontal lines, with each column responding to one of the print
cartridge colors?
A. Supplies Status
B. engine test
C. half self-test
D. Demo
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer moved an image file from the PC to the memory card. However, the customer cannot open
the file now located on the card. What is your first step in testing the card?
A. Verify that the memory card can be used to obtain the file.
B. Verify that the correct side of the card was inserted into the reader.
C. Reseat the memory card by removing and reinserting.
D. Verify that the card has enough memory for the file.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP3-C27
Exam Name: HP (SMB Printing and Imaging sales)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 According to HP and other market segmentations, how many employees would you expect to find in a
lower mid-market organization.?
A. 100 to 499 employees
B. 2000 to 2999 employees
C. 400 to 599 employees
D. 999 to1999 employees
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the prediction for the number of digitally printed pages as a percentage of all pages?
A. 70%
B. 90%
C. 10%
D. 0.5%
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the fundamental difference between the HP print business in the 1980s and their print business
today?
A. In the 1980s, HP business focused around the provision print services.
B. In the 1980s, HP business focused simply around the sale of printers.
C. In the 1980s, HP business focused around data center printing.
D. In the 1980s, HP business focused around printer support contracts.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What has been the effect of the global economic downturn on printing and imaging? (Select two.)
A. Fewer pages are being printed.
B. Refilled and remanufactured ink cartridges have increased in quality.
C. All new product purchases are on hold.
D. Printing and imaging product lifecycles are longer.
E. Inkjet printers are replacing laser printers.
Answer: B, C

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NO.5 How can resellers use print management engagement to increase revenue and profit?
A. Resellers can up-sell from color printers to mono-only printers.
B. Resellers can move from transactional sales to selling service-based contracts.
C. Resellers can up-sell from HP Laser printer to HP Large Format printers.
D. Resellers can move from selling HP PCs and servers to selling HP ProCurve products.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-M39
Exam Name: HP (HP QuickTest Professional 10.0 Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is a QuickTest Professional test comprised of.?
A. calls to actions
B. calls to actions (reusable only)
C. calls to QuickTest Professional tests
D. calls and copies of actions
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click Next or More to continue. Click the Task button. Click on the timeout value for the
synchronization point defined in the script shown in the screenshot.
Answer:

NO.3 Which QuickTest Professional features can be customized using the Customize menu command?
(Select two.)
A. Menus
B. General options
C. Test Settings
D. Active Screen
E.Toolbars
Answer: AE

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NO.4 You record and save your test on a shared network drive as SampleWebTest.
What is created on the shared drive?
A. a file named SampleWebTest.qtp
B. a folder named SampleWebTest
C. a file named SampleWebTest_Action1
D. a temporary folder structure
Answer: B

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NO.5 In which Options tab can you set the option to minimize the space your stored test will require?
A. Active Screen
B. General
C. Run
D. Environment
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which term is used to define the name QuickTest Professional assigns to a recorded object?
A. Physical Name
B. Object Name
C. Repository Name
D. Logical Name
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are examples of a visual cue condition? (Select two.)
A. A button becomes visible.
B. A record is inserted in the database.
C. A progress bar displays.
D. A button becomes enabled.
E.A bitmap displays.
Answer: AD

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NO.8 Which QuickTest Professional feature displays the recorded steps in graphical format?
A. Data Table
B. Active Screen
C. Keyword View
D. Expert View
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which actions can you perform using the Active Screen? (Select two.)
A. Modify objects.
B. Insert standard checkpoints.
C. Insert XML checkpoints.
D. Insert transactions.
E.Insert steps.
Answer: BE

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NO.10 Identify the available column names in the Keyword View. (Select four.)
A. value
B. documentation
C. object
D. record settings
E.property
F. method G. operation H. item
Answer: ABGH

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NO.11 During the planning phase, you decide to create multiple actions that can be combined and reused to
achieve testing goals.
Which element is critical for identifying the actions to be recorded and how to combine them?
A. input data
B. parameters
C. initial and end conditions
D. visual cues
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which Active Screen capture level is the default setting?
A. Complete
B. Limited
C. Partial
D. Minimum
Answer: C

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NO.13 How can you add recordable or nonrecordable operations to your test? (Select three.)
A. Use the Step Generator.
B. Insert through Keyword View.
C. Drag objects from the object repository.
D. Drag objects from the Active Screen.
E. Drag objects from Available Keywords.
F. Drag objects from the Data Table.
Answer: ABE

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NO.14 How does QuickTest Professional identify each object you record?
A. by class and properties
B. by class and methods
C. by methods and properties
D. by class only
Answer: A

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NO.15 What are the advantages of automated testing? (Select three.)
A. easier
B. consistent
C. reusable
D. proactive
E. abstract
F. productive
Answer: BCF

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Exam Code: HP2-Z09
Exam Name: HP (TippingPoint Advanced Technical Security Products)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 76 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What does the Threat Management Center (TMC) allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Download TOS images.
B. Access knowledgebase articles.
C. Remotely log in to your IPS.
D. Download Digital Vaccines.
E. Download custom Digital Vaccines.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.2 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B, C

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NO.3 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.4 Which statements about the Digital Vaccine are true.? (Select three.)
A. Installing a new Digital Vaccine will reboot the IPS.
B. Some filters have a Recommended setting of Disabled.
C. Some filters have a Recommended setting of Enabled.
D. Digital Vaccines can be automatically down loaded and installed on the IPS.
E. New Digital Vaccines are released at 2 p.m. EST.
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.5 Jack, Kevin, and Louise are responsible for various administrative functions on the TippingPoint
solution. Louise is the manager of the group and is defined on the SMS as a super-user. Jack and Kevin
are both defined as administrators. Jack is responsible for network operations and uptime, and Kevin is
responsible for security policy.
Which permissions should you grant? (Select two.)
A. Jack should only be granted permissions for the IPS devices.
B. Louise should be granted permissions to all segment groups, devices, and profiles.
C. Kevin should be granted permissions for the IPS devices.
D. Kevin should only be granted permissions to the appropriate profiles and segment groups.
Answer: A, D

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NO.6 A security administrator at a university has been tasked with identifying the TippingPoint IPS that would
best meet the university's needs. The university has a complex network, with a mixture of both fiber and
copper wiring. IPS protection must be provided for three copper segments and two fiber segments. The
aggregate bandwidth (with expansion capacity) is not expected to exceed 3Gbps over the next four years.
Which TippingPoint IPS solution should the security administrator recommend?
A. 2 TippingPoint 330s and 1 TippingPoint 600E
B. TippingPoint 5000E or TippingPoint 5100N
C. TippingPoint SMS
D. TippingPoint 5100N only
Answer: D

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NO.7 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An IPS can be managed and unmanaged from the SMS. How can you unmanage an IPS? (Select two.)
A. from the SMS Web interface
B. from the SMS client
C. from the IPS LSM Web interface
D. from the IPS CLI using conf t sms disable
Answer: B, C

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NO.9 What is the serial console speed of an IPS?
A. 9600
B. 19200
C. 115,200
D. user configurable
Answer: C

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NO.10 A security administrator for a TippingPoint IPS suspects that an employee has logged into the IPS and
altered its configuration. How can the security administrator analyze and undo all of the unauthorized
changes?
A. by reviewing the IPS system log, searching for filter hits from the employee
B. by reviewing the IPS audit log, filtering by the employee ¯ s use r na m e and / o r I P add r es
C. by reviewing the configuration changes listed in the IPS alert log
D. by reviewing the IPS block log (the employee would have been blocked)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-Z19
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Network Security Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 121 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 You must update the software on an HP E3500 yl switch. Which devices can be sources for the copy
command? (Select two.)
A. USB flash drive
B. management workstation hard drive
C. TFTP server
D. FTP server
E. Compact Flash card
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit below.
You have configured IP helper addresses for VLAN 5 and VLAN 6 on this HP E5406 zl switch. However,
users in these VLANs report that their computers are not receiving DHCP addresses. Which feature must
be enabled to address this problem?
A. DNS
B. DHCP relay
C. IP routing
D. DHCP snooping
Answer: B

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6.Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged
member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100.
You issue the following command:
5406.l(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
B1Do you want to continue? [y/n]:
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLI will not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You make configuration changes to the running configuration of your HP E3500 yl switch. Which
command saves these changes to your startup configuration?
A. save running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. write memory
D. write config
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are benefits of implementing Secure Socket Shell (SSH) for remote management of HP switches?
(Select two.)
A. user accounting
B. encryption of management traffic
C. stronger passwords
D. enforcement of management VLAN
E. secure authentication
F. encryption of all traffic
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 Which HP E-Series switch models display the following prompt in the interface configuration context?
(Select two.)HP Switch(eth-A24)#
A. E8212 zl
B. E6600-24G
C. E5412-96G zl
D. E2910-24G al
E. E3500-48G-POE yl
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 Which remote management interface on an E-Series switch can be secured by enabling Secure
Sockets Layer (SSL)?
A. console
B. menu
C. web management
D. Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the effect of the following commands entered at the CLI of an HP E8212 zl switch with routing
and RIP enabled?E8212(rip)# redistribute ospf
A. The switch will filter OSPF routes from RIP updates received from peers.
B. The switch will include routes learned through OSPF in all RIP updates.
C. The switch will include routes learned through RIP in all OSPF link-state messages.
D. The switch will give preference to OSPF routes over RIP routes in its route table.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A security administrator for a TippingPoint IPS suspects that an employee has logged into the IPS and
altered its configuration. How can the security administrator analyze and undo all of the unauthorized
changes?
A. by reviewing the IPS system log, searching for filter hits from the employee
B. by reviewing the IPS audit log, filtering by the employee ¯ s use r na m e and / o r I P adress
C. by reviewing the configuration changes listed in the IPS alert log
D. by reviewing the IPS block log (the employee would have been blocked)
Answer: B

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NO.10 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Refer to the exhibit below.
What is indicated by this entry in the IP route table of an HP E8212 zl switch?
A. The switch has been configured with an ACL that blocks communications with the loopback interfaces.
B. The switch does not permit communications with any loopback interface.
C. Traffic to this interface is rejected with the single exception of traffic to the host address of the switch ¯ s
loopback interface (127.0.0.1/ 32).
D. A loopback interface is configured with 127.0.0.0.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What does the Threat Management Center (TMC) allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Download TOS images.
B. Access knowledgebase articles.
C. Remotely log in to your IPS.
D. Download Digital Vaccines.
E. Download custom Digital Vaccines.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 What is the serial console speed of an IPS?
A. 9600
B. 19200
C. 115,200
D. user configurable
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which security technology requires that you set read/write community names?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. SNMP
D. HTTPS
E. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.16 Refer to the exhibit below.
You enter the following command at the switch ¯ s C L I: E5406 ( v l a-100)# no untag a24
Why does this command fail?
A. Port A24 is not a member of VLAN 100.
B. Port A24 must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. VLAN 100 must have at least one port member.
D. no untag a24 is an invalid CLI command.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which E-Series CLI commands enable you to view all show commands available in the current context?
(Select two.)
A. Switch# show /?
B. Switch# show all
C. Switch# show help
D. Switch# show ?
E. Switch# show <tab>
F. Switch# help show
Answer: D,E

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NO.18 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch. Which options are available at
this prompt? (Select two.)
A. assign IP address to VLAN interface
B. enable IP routing
C. restart the switch
D. disable ports
E. update software
Answer: C,E

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NO.19 Which categories of routing protocols include RIP and OSPF? (Select two.)
A. exterior gateway
B. link state
C. label switching
D. distance vector
E. interior gateway
Answer: A,E

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NO.20 A security administrator at a university has been tasked with identifying the TippingPoint IPS that
would best meet the university's needs. The university has a complex network, with a mixture of both fiber
and copper wiring. IPS protection must be provided for three copper segments and two fiber segments.
The aggregate bandwidth (with expansion capacity) is not expected to exceed 3Gbps over the next four
years.
Which TippingPoint IPS solution should the security administrator recommend?
A. 2 TippingPoint 330s and 1 TippingPoint 600E
B. TippingPoint 5000E or TippingPoint 5100N
C. TippingPoint SMS
D. TippingPoint 5100N only
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-J44
Exam Name: HP (Advanced SAN Architecture)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What must you consider before you merge an old fabric with a new SAN implementation?
A. Active array controller ports must be taken offline to allow both fabrics to merge.
B. Zone configurations must be disabled on the existing fabrics.
C. New switches must be set to the same domain ID as the existing switches.
D. Each switch in the merged fabric must have a unique domain ID.
Answer: D

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NO.2 When considering a proof of concept model for a customer with a Customer Relation Database (CRM)
environment requiring high bandwidth, which size do you expect for the majority of I/O requests?
A. less than 8K
B. less than 100k
C. greater than 1MB
D. greater than 100k
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which blocksize should you choose for a profile requiring performance-critical random access
applications?
A. 2,048 bytes.
B. 4,096 bytes
C. 8,192 bytes
D. 16,384 bytes
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the primary responsibilities of the SAN architect? (Select three.)
A. Ensuring data availability
B. Solving revision conflicts
C. Solving management problems
D. Ensuring data protection
E. Solving SAN scalability issues
F. Ensuring database consistency or validity
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Which HP tool can be used to validate the integrity of your customer's current SAN environment prior to
a SAN upgrade?
A. HPStorageWorks SAN Validation
B. HPStorageWorks SAN Sizer
C. HPStorageWorks SAN Designer
D. HPStorageWorks Essentials SAN Visibility
Answer: D

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NO.6 When designing a solution for a customer, there are different ways of looking at or viewing the SAN
architecture that is part of that solution. What are two of the four SAN architecture views? (Select two.)
A. Business view
B. SAN functional view
C. Storage centric view
D. Stakeholder view
E. SAN switch view
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 While designing the SAN to meet your customer's throughput requirements, you need to configure
several 4Gb/s B-Series SAN switches with inter-switch links. What is the maximum throughput available
using a trunk group between 2 switches?
A. 8Gb/s
B. 16Gb/s
C. 32Gb/s
D. 64Gb/s
Answer: C

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NO.8 When considering the cabling of a new SAN environment with 8Gb/s switches, what is the maximum
distance per cable segment using OM2 fiber optic cables?
A. 50 meters
B. 150 meters
C. 380 meters
D. 500 meters
Answer: A

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NO.9 During a SAN switch assessment on a B-series switch, a SAN architect notices that the switch is
partitioned in a set of logical switches. What is the name of this feature?
A. Inter VSAN Routing
B. Transparent Routing
C. Virtual Fabric
D. VSAN
Answer: C

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NO.10 Continuous Access XP software products allow host-independent, real-time, remote data mirroring
between XP disk arrays. If you are designing a solution that requires no performance impact on the host
application, but the link between sites is not necessarily highly available, what is the best choice?
A. CA for XP Sync
B. CA for XPAsync
C. CA for XP Journal
D. CA for XP Link Extension
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-S30
Exam Name: HP (Design and Implementation of HP SIM and HP Insight Control)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is a good indicator that Insight Control performance management has not been installed with HP
SIM?
A. The status of the managed devices under the HW column shows "unknown" status.
B. The system table view does not show a PF column.
C. The System Management Homepage does not display any performance information.
D. The Tool menu in HP SIM does not display any performance management options.
Answer: B

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NO.2 HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) can be hosted on which operating environments? (Select
three.)
A. HP-UX
B. Linux
C. OVMS
D. Windows
E. Solaris
F. AIX
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 What must you enable before performing an offline analysis with Insight Control performance
management? (Select two.)
A. Alerting
B. Discovery
C. Logging
D. Monitoring
E. Reporting
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 What must you consider when configuring community strings?
A. They must be unique to each system that is being managed.
B. HP SIM and managed systems must have matching community strings.
C. The community strings must not be more than eight characters long.
D. All systems must be configured with a write community string.
Answer: B

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NO.5 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Match the type of collection available in HP SIM with its characteristic.
Answer:

NO.6 Which feature of HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) enables you to view contract and warranty
information for managed systems?
A. ProLiant Essentials
B. Integrity Essentials
C. Storage Essentials Enterprise Suite
D. Service Essentials Remote Support Pack
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which type of component is considered part of the HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
management domain?
A. central management server (CMS)
B. network client
C. any third-party device
D. any management information base (MIB) compiled device
Answer: A

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NO.8 You noticed that a system that was being monitored by Insight Control performance management has a
critical status in the PF column. However, the HW status displays as "normal". What could cause this to
occur?
A. The HP management agents have been downgraded.
B. Network teaming was enabled on the managed server.
C. Performance monitoring was disabled in HP SIM for that managed server.
D. The license was removed from that managed server within HP SIM.
Answer: A

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NO.9 How many agents are there in the HP Insight Management Agents family?
A. one monolithic agent for all devices
B. four: a server, NIC, storage, and foundation agent
C. five: a server, NIC, storage, foundation, and Version Control Agent
D. six: a server, NIC, storage, foundation, client, and Version Control Agent
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the default view of the BladeSystem page in BladeSystem Integrated Manager?
A. Icons
B. Location
C. Table
D. Tree
Answer: D

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NO.11 From which components do the Insight Foundation Agents collect data in order to provide
management information to HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. operating system
B. system drivers
C. management host
D. serial and parallel ports
E. memory subsystem
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 What should you do when enabling the WMI Mapper in HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A. Run the identification task to properly identify systems that are running WMI.
B. Run the software polling task to return WMI information for managed systems.
C. Rerun the discovery task to discover systems that are running WMI.
D. Run a hardware polling task to get status information in WMI instrumented devices.
Answer: A

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NO.13 HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) indicates a minor degraded state on a managed system. You
investigate further by clicking on the Hardware status (HW) link. HP SIM should launch another page with
the System Management Home (SMH). Instead, a "Page not found" message displays. What can cause
this issue.?
A. A firewall is configured on the target managed node that prevents port 50000 from communicating with
HP SIM.
B. The system is no longer available or the system is down and HP SIM has not yet updated the minor
status to critical status.
C. HP SIM is referencing the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) when launching the SMH and cannot
resolve the IP to the FQDN.
D. The community strings do not match between HP SIM and the target managed node and therefore
cannot display the SMH.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What happens when an event is generated that affects an entire rack or enclosure?
A. Several systems within the rack or enclosure can generate a trap, but they are filtered by HP SIM to
only show one event per rack or enclosure.
B. Multiple traps are received by HP SIM and can cause multiple events to trigger multiple notification
alerts.
C. An alert is logged for each server associated with the enclosure, but the same event increases a
counter each time the same trap is received.
D. Traps are received from a server, but they are not associated with the enclosure and are managed
independently.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What must you consider regarding the central management server (CMS) when managing a Windows
environment with HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A. Timeout values for processing WMI information from Windows-based systems might need to be
changed on the CMS.
B. All systems being managed must have a trust relationship with the CMS for single sign-on (SSO).
C. There must be a WMI Mapper installed on the CMS or on another server on the network.
D. All Windows-based systems must be in the same domain as the CMS.
Answer: C

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NO.16 You received an SNMP Authentication trap, but did not receive a notification in HP Systems Insight
Manager (HP SIM). What could cause this?
A. The default setting for Enabling Trap Handling in SNMP extensions was disabled in HP SIM.
B. The trap received was not sent from a managed node that is in the authorized list.
C. A filter was set in the discovery task to ignore these authentication traps by default.
D. A trust relationship was not established between HP SIM and the managed node sending the trap.
Answer: A

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NO.17 When performing a remote installation of Insight Remote Support, you receive an error stating that the
install cannot proceed. What can cause this issue?
A. A SIMadmin user with administrative privileges is not performing the installation.
B. The installation requires that FTP be installed on the remote server before installing Insight Remote
Support.
C. The installation initiated from a Microsoft Remote Desktop (RDP) session that does not have the active
desktop session.
D. The installation requires that you run Insight Software Advisor, which launches the full installation of
Insight Control.
Answer: C

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NO.18 How much can HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) 6.X scale?
A. HP SIM can manage 2,500 operating system instances.
B. HP SIM can manage 5,000 physical and virtual machines plus supporting iLOs and OAs.
C. HP SIM can manage 10,000 physical and virtual machines.
D. HP SIM is limited by the amount of memory on the central management server (CMS).
Answer: B

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NO.19 What should you consider when monitoring devices using the DMI protocol?
A. Only systems that have event indication subscriptions configured in HP Systems Insight Manager (HP
SIM) are managed by DMI.
B. Only desktops and workstations communicating with the central management server (CMS) are
identified by the DMI protocol.
C. To be identified by DMI, managed systems running Windows or HP-UX must run the same operating
system as the CMS.
D. A Management Information File (MIF) must be compiled in HP SIM for each device model being
managed by the DMI protocol.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What type of information displays when you place your cursor over a server blade graphic in the HP
SIM picture view? (Select two.)
A. server name
B. slot or bay number
C. contact information
D. rack location
E. server role
Answer: A,B

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