2014年2月24日星期一

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Exam Code: VCA410-DT
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Associate - Desktop)
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Total Q&A: 178 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what does the number next to the red exclamation mark indicate?
There are three problem events recorded.
A. There are three problems.
B. There are three potential problems.
C. There are three warning events recorded.
Answer: A

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NO.2 View Administrator shows a desktop pool with 100 remote and 20 local sessions displayed.
What does this indicate.?
A. The pool has 20 sessions available for local users.
B. The pool has 120 users with sessions.
C. The pool has 120 sessions available for users.
D. The pool has 100 active sessions and 20 sessions available for users.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator accesses the View Administrator Console Dashboard and sees a Desktop with the
error:
Customization operation timed out
What is the most likely cause of the error?
A. The datastore containing the virtual machine has been formatted for NTFS.
B. The datastore containing the virtual machine has the block size set too high.
C. The datastore containing the virtual machine has an NFS mount.
D. The datastore containing the virtual machine has run out of space.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A user reports being unable to log in to his remote desktop. The administrator needs to identify the root
cause of this issue.
Which two fields in View Administrator will assist with identifying the state of the desktops? (Choose two.)
A. Remote Session > Session State
B. Help Desk > Session State
C. Desktops > Status
D. Problem Desktops > Status
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 An administrator goes to Desktops on the View Administrator and notices a status of Startup.
Which two conditions does this status indicate? (Choose two.)
A. The display protocol has started.
B. The View Agent has started.
C. The View Agent is still starting.
D. The display protocol is still starting.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 In the View Administrator Dashboard, what does a gray question mark beside Other Components -
Domains indicate?
A. The domain is Active Directory 2008-based.
B. The domain is LDAP-based.
C. The domain is Active Directory 2000-based.
D. The domain is Kerberos-based.
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and notices that a desktop is Checked
Out.
What does this indicate?
A. The desktop is locked on the physical client system and active on the remote system.
B. The desktop is unlocked on the physical client system and active on the remote system.
C. The desktop is locked on the remote system and active on the physical client system.
D. The desktop is unlocked on the remote system and active on the physical client system.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator goes to View Administrator on the Connection Server CS1 and looks through the
Events to see if there are any errors. The administrator sees the following error:
Provisioning error occurred for Machine Desktop1: Customization error due to no network communication
between the View agent and the Connection Server.
According to the View Administrator Guide, what are two recommended troubleshooting steps that can be
taken to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. go to Desktop1 and do a telnet CS1 4001
B. go to Desktop1 and do a telnet Desktop1 4001
C. go to Desktop1 and do a nslookup Desktop1
D. go to Desktop1 and do a nslookup CS1
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 A View administrator wants to programmatically determine Desktop entitlements for a user in a script.
What is the correct syntax to query user data with vdmadmin?
A. vdmadmin -U domainuser
B. vdmadmin -U -u domainuser
C. vdmadmin -U: domainuser
D. vdmadmin -User domainuser
Answer: B

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
A user is experiencing difficulties connecting to her desktop.
Based on the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the user being unable to log in?
The desktop is suspended.
A. The administrator is already logged in.
B. The user is already logged in.
C. The desktop is off.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which third-party tool can be used to store event data after it has been cycled off of the Dashboard?
A. Microsoft Excel
B. Crystal Reports
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. MySQL
Answer: C

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NO.12 An administrator needs to update a single desktop in a pool and prohibit the user from logging in to the
desktop while updating it.
After going to the Inventory page of the pool and selecting the desktop, what must the administrator do to
ensure the user is unable to log in to the desktop?
A. choose Enter Maintenance Mode
B. choose Send Message
C. choose Disconnect Session
D. choose Logoff Session
Answer: A

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NO.13 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and notices that under Problem Desktops,
there is one desktop identified as Agent Unreachable.
What does this desktop status indicate?
A. The desktop server service is disabled.
B. The desktop messenger service is unable to send messages to the Agent.
C. The desktop firewall service is blocking ports needed by the Agent.
D. The desktop network service is disabled.
Answer: C

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NO.14 In a new floating linked-clone pool, a desktop shows a status of Provisioned.
What does this indicate?
A. The desktop is powered off and has been created, but needs to be customized.
B. The desktop is powered on and has been created, but needs to be customized.
C. The desktop is powered off and has been created and customized.
D. The desktop is powered on and has been created and customized.
Answer: C

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NO.15 An administrator goes to Desktops on the View Administrator and notices a status of Provisioning.
What does this status most likely indicate?
A. The desktop is being customized by Sysprep.
B. The desktop is being customized by Quickprep.
C. The desktop is being created by the vCenter Server.
D. The desktop is being validated by the Security Server.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which three error states are reported by View Administrator in the Problem Desktops tab? (Choose
three.)
A. persistent disk offline
B. replica not responding
C. stuck in provisioning
D. report ready, but not accepting connections
E. powered on but not responding
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.17 In a Dedicated pool, a desktop shows a status of Configuration Error.
What does this indicate?
A. The display protocol is not enabled.
B. The display protocol is enabled.
C. The pool is not enabled.
D. The pool is enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.18 What does the yellow double arrow indicate when monitoring within the Dashboard > System Health >
View components pane?
A. agent issue
B. low performance
C. alert
D. warning
Answer: D

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NO.19 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and sees a red arrow beside the Transfer
Server. The administrator verifies that the Transfer Server can be pinged by the DNS name. The arrow
beside the Transfer Server in the Dashboard remains red.
What does the red arrow indicate in this situation?
A. The Transfer Server service is down.
B. The Transfer Server web service is down.
C. The Transfer Server is powered off.
D. The Transfer Server repository is offline.
Answer: A

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NO.20 How can an administrator inform a pool user that a recompose will take place?
A. click on Users and Groups > select pool > click Send Message
B. click on Pools > select their pool > click Sessions tab > highlight user > click Send Message
C. click on Pools > highlight their pool > click More Commands > choose Send Message
D. click on Global Settings > click Edit > check Display warning before recompose > enter a message
Answer: B

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NO.1 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.2 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.7 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.11 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.13 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.14 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.17 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.18 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.19 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.20 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on
the
datastore alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp. Which three options are
available?
(Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and
finds that the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be
protected? (Choose two.)
A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual
machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual
machine cannot be generated.
D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning
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memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose
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A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are
running
a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have
been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual
machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on
the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster
from this template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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Exam Code: TB0-111
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO Rendezvous 8 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Company A will deploy their Rendezvous applications to their production environment. They need to
run five RVDs, two RVRDs, one RVA, and one RVTRACE utility on one particular host. How many ticket
files (tibrv.tkt) are needed on the host?
A. one
B. seven
C. eight
D. nine
E. four
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Which menu option shown in the exhibit is used for setting the default service and network for
Rendezvous secure daemons (RVSDs)?
A. Users
B. Services
C. XML Configuration
D. Daemon Parameters
E. Networks and Services
Answer: D

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NO.3 You plan to test a network to ensure that it meets the following requirements: 100,000 point-topoint
messages to be published by a single source in batch mode with ten messages per batch with an interval
gap of 10 milliseconds. What is the correct rvperfm command to start a test run?
A. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -inbox -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch 10
B. rvperfm -service 7500 -daemon 7500 -inbox -messages 100000 -interval 0.01 -batch 10
C. rvperfm -service 7500 -daemon 7500 -subject PTP -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch 10
D. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -subject _INBOX -messages 100000 -interval 10 -batch
E. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -subject _PTP -messages 100000 -interval 0.01 -batch 10
Answer: B

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NO.4 Queue dispatch calls remove the event at the head of a queue, and run its callback function. What is
the correct behavior for the three types of dispatch calls in situations where the queue is empty? (Choose
three.)
A. Ordinary dispatch blocks indefinitely, until the queue contains an event.
B. Polling dispatch does not block. If the queue is empty, it returns immediately.
C. Timed dispatch does not block for an event, but keeps on polling periodically.
D. Ordinary dispatch blocks for the timeout value, until the queue contains an event.
E. Polling dispatch blocks waiting for an event. If the queue is empty, it returns immediately.
F. Timed dispatch blocks waiting for an event, but returns without dispatching anything if a waiting time
limit is exceeded.
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.5 Which advisory message does a Rendezvous fault-tolerant member present when other group
members use parameters that do not match its corresponding parameters?
A. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.PARAM_MISMATCH.group
B. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.PARAM_COLLISION.group
C. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.MEMBER_UNAVAILABLE.group
D. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.MEMBER_PARAM_MISMATCH.group
Answer: A

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NO.6 A publisher application uses a transport with UDP port number 8600 and multicast group 239.1.1.1.
Which two sets of transport parameters enable a subscriber application to receive messages from the
publisher? (Choose two.)
A. Service 6800, Network ";239.1.1.0;239.1.1.1"
B. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.0;239.1.1.1"
C. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.1,239.1.1.0"
D. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.0,239.1.1.1;239.1.1.1"
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which statement is correct about Rendezvous fault-tolerant groups (RVFTs)?
A. RVFT is an election protocol that tells an application when it is active or inactive.
B. RVFT can only be utilized for message producers, not for message consumers.
C. For reliable consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically disables
subscriptions if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.
D. For certified consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically
confirms messages if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.
E. For certified consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport automatically cancels the
certified agreement if the fault-tolerant group member becomes inactive.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In TIBCO Rendezvous, a control channel is used for communication between _____.
A. Rendezvous daemons and client processes
B. Rendezvous daemons and browser interface
C. Rendezvous managed daemons and Rendezvous non-managed daemons
D. Rendezvous Daemon Manager (RVDM) and Rendezvous managed daemons
Answer: D

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NO.9 For Rendezvous secure daemon (RVSD), subject access can be restricted to specific users. Where on
the RVSD browser interface is this feature configured?
A. on the User's page
B. on the Subject Access page
C. on the Limiting Access page
D. on the Authorize Subjects page
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement is correct about the _RV.INFO.RVCM.DELIVERY.CONFIRM.subject advisory?
A. A listener sends this advisory to confirm receipt of a certified message.
B. The sender presents this advisory after deleting the message from its ledger.
C. A sender presents this advisory whenever a registered listener confirms receipt of a certified message.
D. A sender presents this advisory when all registered listeners have either confirmed delivery of a
certified message, or canceled interest in receiving it.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Your back-end processing supports multi-threading and you plan to leverage this capability in the
context of a Rendezvous distributed queue (RVCMQ) subscriber by running five concurrent threads.
Which statement is correct?
A. RVCMQ scales by multiple program instances (horizontally), not by multi-threading (vertically).
B. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as specified by the scheduler
configuration (the scheduler tasks parameter must be set to 5 or greater).
C. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as specified by the worker tasks
parameter (the worker tasks parameter of each queue member must be equal to or greater than 5).
D. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as it dispatches (nothing needs to be
done from a RVCMQ standpoint as it is a matter of the multi-threaded message dispatching).
Answer: C

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NO.12 tibrvlistenis started with the following settings: -network ";224.2.2.2;224.6.6.6" "mytest" tibrvsend is
started with the following settings: -network ";224.6.6.6;224.2.2.2" "mytest". "message #1" What is the
expected result?
A. The listener receives "message #1" only when run on a different host than the sender.
B. The listener does not receive "message #1" when run on a different host than the sender.
C. The listener will receive the message only if both the listener and sender run on the same host.
D. The listener will receive the message only if both the listener and sender connect remotely to the same
daemon.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two statements are correct about fault-tolerant groups? (Choose two.)
A. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight.
B. Fault-tolerant groups implement a K of N active strategy (K member of a group is active while N-K
members are passive).
C. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight, which must be
a unique value within the fault-tolerant group.
D. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight. Members with
equal weight are ranked by the time they joined the fault-tolerant group.
E. The members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member weight. Members
with equal weight are ranked by non-deterministic means opaque to programs.
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 The following is the declaration of secure daemon in Rendezvous C API: tibrv_status
tibrvSecureDaemon_SetUserCertWithKey( const char* userCertWithKey, const char* password);
Which two statements are correct about this function? (Choose two.)
A. The password parameter is used to decrypt the private key.
B. The password parameter is used for the password for this user.
C. TheuserCertWithKey parameter is used to register user certificate with a private key. The text of this
certificate must be in PEM encoding.
D. TheuserCertWithKey parameter is used to register user certificate with a private key. The text of this
certificate may be in PEM or PK12 encoding.
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which two statement are correct about certified delivery confirmation? (Choose two.)
A. Explicit confirmation of message delivery by the listening program is the default behavior.
B. When confirmation reaches the certified sender, the transport presents a DELIVERY.CONFIRM
advisory.
C. Automatic confirmation of message delivery upon return from the callback function is the default
behavior.
D. When confirmation reaches the certified listener, the transport presents a
DELIVERY.CONFIRM advisory.
E. When confirmation reaches the certified sender, the transport presents a
DELIVERY.COMPLETE advisory.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Which three activities can be configured through the Rendezvous routing daemon (RVRD) HTTP
interface to be routinely output to the RVRD log file? (Choose three.)
A. Subject Data: to log all messages that this routing daemon forwards to its neighbors or receives from
its neighbors
B. Connections: to log connection activity whenever this routing daemon establishes or closes a
connection to a neighbor
C. Client: to log RVRD local client connection activity whenever a client application establishes or closes a
connection to the routing daemon
D. Subject interest: to log all subscription requests (notification of listening) that this routing daemon
sends to its neighbors or receives from its neighbors
E. Remote: to log RVRD remote client connection activity whenever a remote client application
establishes or closes a connection to the routing daemon
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.17 Where is the Rendezvous license ticket file located?
A. It can be in any directory in theclasspath.
B. It can be in any directory in the execution path.
C. It must be in the Rendezvous Home/lib directory.
D. It must be in the Rendezvous Home/bin directory.
Answer: A

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NO.18 When programming a TIBCO Rendezvous fault-tolerant application, it is a documented best practice to
associate fault-tolerant member events with _____.
A. a low-priority queue
B. a high-priority queue
C. a system event queue
D. the default event queue
Answer: B

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NO.19 With TIBCO Rendezvous messaging, which networking protocol does the client application use to
connect to the Rendezvous daemon (RVD)?
A. SSL
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which two situations can trigger the presentation of a SCHEDULER.OVERFLOW advisory? (Choose
two.)
A. Scheduler has set a task backlog limit.
B. Scheduler has not set a task backlog limit.
C. Scheduler is accepting new tasks, but discarding old ones on a FIFO basis.
D. The Scheduler backlog limit has been reached and new tasks are being discarded.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: TB0-121
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO ActiveMatrix BPM Solution Designer)
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Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two functions are available to the user when using a Supervisor Work View? (Choose two.)
A. Allocate selected work items to self
B. pend selected work items
C. Cancel selected work items
D. Allocate selected work items to offer set
E. Open selected work items
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Match each icon with its description.
Answer:

NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two options are available when adding a binding to a form parameter in TIBCO Business Studio?
(Choose two.)
A. Is Updated By
B. Synchronizes With
C. Externally Updated
D. Scripted
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which requirement must be met by User tasks that are chained together?
A. They must be offered to different participants.
B. They must have Offer to All as their distribution strategy.
C. They must have Offer to One as their distribution strategy.
D. They must be allocated to different participants.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
In this scenario, the Complex Decision / Merge is configured as follows:
Join Type = Continue When 'n' Parallel Flows Arrive
Parallel Split Gateway = Send Requests
Number of Incoming Flow = 3
What happens when the process is run?
A. When any three of the Approval tasks has completed, one copy of the Review task will be sent out. The
remaining Approval task will be processed then ignored.
B. When any three of the Approval tasks has completed, one copy of the Review task will be sent out. The
remaining Approval task will be cancelled immediately.
C. When each of the first three Approval tasks completes, one copy of the Review task will be sent out,
resulting in three Review tasks. The remaining Approval task will be processed then ignored.
D. When each of the first three Approval tasks completes, one copy of the Review task will be sent out,
resulting in three Review tasks. The remaining Approval task will be cancelled immediately.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement is true when the User task's specified distribution method is Offer to All?
A. The work item is available to all users who are members of the specified organizational entity.
B. The work item is distributed to, and completed by all members of the specified organizational entity.
C. Work items are distributed to members of the specified organizational entity in strict rotational order.
D. Work items are distributed to members of the specified organizational entity in random order.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about scripts? (Choose two.)
A. A script can be associated with a multi-instance task.
B. Business analysis capability is required to enter JavaScript to a Script task
C. It is possible to highlight all tasks that contain scripts in a process.
D. A script can be executed on a Start Timer Event.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 When importing processes, what are two supported import formats in TIBCO Business Studio? (Choose
two.)
A. BST
B. Archive
C. XFR
D. MAA
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 What are two uses of form bindings? (Choose two.)
A. To update a control property, based on a control value
B. To associate a rule with a private or shared action
C. To associate a control value with a form parameter
D. To update a rule, based on a form event
E. To allow an action to be shared with multiple rules
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about Organization Models? (Choose two.)
A. They can be configured against multiple LDAPs.
B. They cannot be deployed independently of BPM applications.
C. They are optional if the BPM application is fully automated.
D. They can be shared by multiple BPM applications.
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 A process with multiple parallel branches from a single path must converge into a single path. When the
activities in one branch are completed and reach the point of convergence, control must be passed to the
single path without waiting for the other branches to complete.
Which Workflow Control Pattern should be used to achieve this functionality?
A. Structured Discriminator
B. Cancelling Discriminator
C. Structured Synchronizing Merge
D. Multi-Merge
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two types of Work Distribution Models are supported by ActiveMatrix 3PW (Choose two)
A. Pulled Distribution
B. Pushed Distribution
C. Allocated Distribution
D. Random Distribution
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Which type of file is used to deploy processes to the ActiveMatrix BPM server node?
A. DAA
B. EAR
C. JAR
D. MAA
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two statements are true when you suspend a process instance? (Choose two.)
A. All work items are suspended, except in a Supervisor Work View.
B. If a work item is open when the process instance is suspended, the work item can still be submitted.
C. All work items remain in an allocated state until the process instance is resumed.
D. All suspended work items become hidden in the work item list.
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Which two statements are true about TIBCO Business Studio Asset Central? (Choose two.)
A. It only allows for multiple versions of projects to be retained in the local workspace.
B. It allows for multiple versions of projects to be shared between multiple users via a source control
server
C. It requires that process designers are permanently connected to the source control server.
D. It allows for a project to be checked out of the source control server and modified offline.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Name: The Open Group (TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2)
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Total Q&A: 219 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Complete the sentence. To promote effective architectural activity within the enterprise, TOGAF 9
recommends the establishment of a(n) _____
A. Enterprise Architecture Capability
B. IT Governing Board
C. Program Management Office
D. Quality Assurance department
E. Service Management department
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is the architecture domain that describes the logical software and hardware
capabilities?
A. Application Architecture
B. Business Architecture
C. Data Architecture
D. Technology Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.3 According to TOGAF, where should architecture governance artifacts be stored?
A. In the Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model
B. In the Standards Information Base
C. In the Foundation Architecture
D. In the Architecture Repository
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which section of the TOGAF document describes the processes, skills and roles to establish and
operate an architecture function within an enterprise?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is
an example and not mandatory?
A. To show the evolution of deliverables
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
D. To support change management
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhichcan be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true.?
A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture
B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF
D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9
Answer: A

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NO.8 According to TOGAF, Which one of the following best describes an enterprise architecture?
A. An architecture of a commercial organization
B. An architecture that consists of more than one subsidiary company
C. An architecture that crosses multiple systems, and multiple functional groups within the enterprise
D. The highest level of architecture that can be achieved in a given organization
Answer: C

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NO.9 In TOGAF, What is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E

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NO.10 According to TOGAF, Which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which phase of the ADM is used to finalize a set of transition architectures that will support
implementation?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which one of the following describes classification methods for architecture and solution artifacts
within the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Landscape
B. Architecture Vision
C. Enterprise Continuum
D. Governance Log
E. Standards Information Base
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which one of the following best describes the implications of TOGAF being a generic framework?
A. The organization must utilize an architecture tool in order to tailor the templates for use
B. It must be adapted to satisfy organization specific requirements
C. It can be utilized by most enterprises without further customization
D. It can only be used for enterprise level architecture projects E. It should only be employed under the
supervision of highly trained consultants
Answer: B

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NO.14 According to TOGAF, the recommended dimensions used to define the scope of an architecture
include all the following, except:
A. Architecture Domains
B. Enterprise Focus
C. Level of Detail
D. Subject Matter
E. Time Period
Answer: D

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NO.15 What level of the Architecture Landscape provides a long-term summary view of the entire enterprise?
A. Capability Architecture
B. Operational Architecture
C. Segment Architecture
D. Strategic Architecture
E. Tactical Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.16 According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category describes a technique that is
referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated?
A. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
B. TOGAF Recommended
C. TOGAF Supporting
D. TOGAF Extension
Answer: B

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NO.17 According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category is for resources NOT
referenced by content within the other categories?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Extension
C. TOGAF Mandatory
D. TOGAF Recommended
E. TOGAF Supporting
Answer: E

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NO.18 What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference
Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
Answer: D

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NO.20 Complete the sentence. TOGAF 9 Part III provides techniques, such as developing principles and gap
analysis, to support tasks within the ______
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Continuum
C. Architecture Development Method
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Architecture Repository
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-250
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX)
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Total Q&A: 199 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Correct:C

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NO.2 Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which command displays the amount of free space in the configuration database of the datadg
disk group?
A.vxdg -g datadg free
B.vxdg -g datadg list
C.vxdg free datadg
D.vxdg list datadg
Correct:D

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NO.4 The upgrade scripts are being used to upgrade Volume Manager. Which file's existence would
indicate that the upgrade_start script had been run, but the upgrade_finish has yet to be run?
A./UPGRADE_START/.start_runed
B./VXVM5.0-UPGRADE/.start_runed
C./etc/vx/.start_runed
D./etc/vx/.upgrade_runed
Correct:B

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NO.5 What are valid mount options for a Veritas file system? (Choose two.)
A.nolargefiles
B.shared
C.logtmp
D.delaylog
E.logdelay
Correct:A D

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NO.6 Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at
the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

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NO.7 What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E

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NO.8 Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D

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NO.9 Which commands display plex, volume, and kernel states? (Choose two.)
A.vxcat
B.vxdisplay
C.vxinfo
D.vxprint
E.vxstate
Correct:C D

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NO.10 Which command displays the number of paths to the datadg01 disk?
A.vxdisk list datadg01
B.vxdg list datadg01
C.vxpath list datadg01
D.vxdmpadm list datadg01
Correct:A

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NO.11 Which statements are true about deporting a disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The volumes are unavailable.
B.The disk group is available for importing.
C.The disk group is deported and online.
D.The file systems are destroyed.
E.The file systems are accessible.
Correct:A B

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NO.12 After initializing a disk for use in Volume Manager, which command is used to create a disk
group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag and using a disk media name of datadg01?
A.vxassist create datadg datadg01=device_tag
B.vxdg create datadg datadg01=device_tag
C.vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag
D.vxassist datadg init datadg01= device_tag
Correct:C

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NO.13 Which command is used to change the stripe unit size and number of columns for the datavol
volume in the datadg disk group?
A.vxvol datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
B.vxassist datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
C.vxvol datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
D.vxassist datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
Correct:D

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NO.14 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A.vxedit
B.vxassist
C.vxremove
D.vxevac
E.vxmirror
Correct:A B

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NO.15 Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E

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NO.16 Which vxsnap command option recreates a space-optimized instant snapshot?
A.restore
B.reattach
C.refresh
D.reassociate
Correct:C

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NO.17 When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are
available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Correct:A B

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NO.18 In the output of the vxdisk list command, there are no entries in the DISK and GROUP columns.
However, you see online invalid in the output of the STATUS column. What does the online invalid
status indicate?
A.The disk is failing and needs to be replaced for future use in Volume Manager.
B.The disk is incompatible with the current release of Volume Manager.
C.The disk is available for initialization or encapsulation by Volume Manager.
D.The disk is available for use and has encapsulated data deported on another system.
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored
volume?
A.nplex
B.numplex
C.nummirror
D.nmirror
Correct:D

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NO.20 Which command upgrades the datadg disk group from version 50 to the current disk group
version?
A.vxdg -T 50 upgrade datadg
B.vxdg upgrade datadg
C.vxdg currvers datadg
D.vxdg 50 currvers datadg
Correct:B

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